20 ms·
No, because x/y is just an arbitrary operation between x and y. Here you're assuming that 1/x is the inverse of x under *, but it's not.
by rnhmjoj 10mo ago
No, because x/y is just an arbitrary operation between x and y. Here you're assuming that 1/x is the inverse of x under *, but it's not.
- orbifold 10mo agoI mean in a normal math curriculum you would define only the multiplicative inverse and then there is a separate way to define fraction, if you start out with certain rings. It is kind of surprising to me that they did a lazy definition of division.