This is possible in theory. I think that if we look at inflation-adjusted productivity, and inflation-adjusted average income, then that would indeed prove inc

This is possible in theory. I think that if we look at inflation-adjusted productivity, and inflation-adjusted average income, then that would indeed prove increasing inequality, right? I believe the chart in this link is adjusted by inflation. Showing overall the same trend: https://www.epi.org/productivity-pay-gap/ https://www.epi.org/productivity-pay-gap/