3 ms·
>Turing equivalence and not even turing equivalence but 2 pieces of code with roughly the same functionality does not dictate the speed between them. You seem t
by goggles99 14y ago
>Turing equivalence and not even turing equivalence but 2 pieces of code with roughly the same functionality does not dictate the speed between them. You seem to be under some sort of misconception that two pieces of code have to be implemented in the same
I am merely pointing out that there is overhead with every VM. This is especially true with every current JITted JavaScript in use today (more so than with the JVM and CLR). So how could it possibly be faster if both implementations use an equal amount of optimization otherwise.
How is this even ever an argument?
- tptacek 14y agohttp://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Just-in-time_compilation http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Just-in-time_compilation
- rat87 14y ago> So how could it possibly be faster if both implementations use an equal amount of optimization otherwise. Who says they are?
- goggles99 14y agoAnyone who says that JS or X other VM dependent language can be faster than C must say this to have a leg to stand on. They cannot say this??? Thus my point...