My objection to that is that there isn't a particularly natural reason not to say (-1)ˣ = cos(πx) - i sin(πx) As a formula about e^iπx, there is no suc

My objection to that is that there isn't a particularly natural reason not to say (-1)ˣ = cos(πx) - i sin(πx) As a formula about e^iπx, there is no such conflict.