4 ms·
Nope, a[b] is equivalent to *(a + b) regardless of a and b.
by messe 10mo ago
Nope, a[b] is equivalent to *(a + b) regardless of a and b.
- sureglymop 10mo agoGiven that, why don't we use just `*(a + b)` everywhere? Wouldn't that be more verbose and less confusing? (genuinely asking)
- tomsmeding 10mo agoDo you really think that `*(a + i)` is clearer than `a[i]`?
- sureglymop 10mo agoNot necessarily. I think it's confusing when there are two fairly close ways to express the same thing.