3 ms·
I think the reason for this is Thue–Siegel–Roth theorem that says there are only finitely many "good" rational approximations of pi (or any other irrational num
by IsTom 14y ago
I think the reason for this is Thue–Siegel–Roth theorem that says there are only finitely many "good" rational approximations of pi (or any other irrational number).
- cperciva 14y agoThe Thue–Siegel–Roth theorem deals specifically with algebraic numbers, of which pi is not one.