4 ms·
well.. no, not exactly. If u = u(x) then du = u'(x) dx holds rigorously, and then you can substitute du/u' = dx in an integral.
by ajkjk 1y ago
well.. no, not exactly. If u = u(x) then du = u'(x) dx holds rigorously, and then you can substitute du/u' = dx in an integral.