3 ms·
I found the per calculation highly suspicious, especially the first row: > Country Median Margin Average Margin Sample Size > South Africa 28.86% 82.37% 7
by littlestymaar 1y ago
I found the per calculation highly suspicious, especially the first row:
> Country Median Margin Average Margin Sample Size
> South Africa 28.86% 82.37% 7
How can the average be 82% with a median being 28% without having one that is above 100%?
- foolswisdom 1y agoIt's probably a weighted average, as described earlier in the article.
- deleted 1y ago[deleted]
- kqr 1y agoGood catch. If there are n samples, and the lower half of them are equal to or less than 0.29, then a total mean of 0.82 would require that sum of the the upper half must be greater than 0.82n - 0.29n/2 = 0.675n. For n/2 numbers to sum to 0.675n, the mean of those numbers must be 1.35, which is decidedly above 100 %, proving at least one of the numbers must have been greater than 100 %. It being a weighted average does sound like a reasonable explanation, though. A median of 0.29 and weighted mean of 0.82 is trivially possible given e.g. values (0.29, 0.29, 0.82) and weights (0, 0, 1).
- dmboyd 1y agoCertainly possible if their calculation of income included non operating income otherwise excluded from revenue. (Eg. A gain on sale that dwarfs the underlying business). Such presentation is prevalent and a disclosure of “gross profit” isn’t uniformly required under GAAP