2 ms·
Why did the owners (under Ottoman law) not have the right to sell? How is/was that different from any property sale at the time, or now?
by lokar 1y ago
Why did the owners (under Ottoman law) not have the right to sell? How is/was that different from any property sale at the time, or now?
- mikkupikku 1y agoIt wasn't their land, the Ottomans were just another imperial power. (I know I'm talking to a wall here, getting you people to think outside of a legalistic mindset is impossible.)
- lokar 1y agoI'm not trying to be specifically legalistic, just trying to see if there is some general principles here that you think apply outside this situation. You see the rule of the ottomans as invalid, and this all (legalistic) property rights during that period invalid? That seems it would apply everywhere. How are property rights ever established? What does it take to invalidate them?