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You're implying that the colonial powers got rich by taking natural resources from Africa and forcing Africans to work without pay. Since you don't offer any e
by BurningFrog 1y ago
You're implying that the colonial powers got rich by taking natural resources from Africa and forcing Africans to work without pay.
Since you don't offer any evidence for this scenario, I can't really refute it :)
But note that 90% of Africa didn't even get colonized before 1884. That was over a century into the Industrial Revolution era, during which Western Europe had roughly doubled it's population and tripled their GDP.
- oa335 1y ago> You're implying that the colonial powers got rich by taking natural resources from Africa and forcing Africans to work without pay. I don't interpret the OP comment as restricted to Africa - e.g. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Encomienda https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Encomienda in Spanish colonies.