99% of the population dies of famine and crime (killed for their food). This is just irrational. What precedent or basis is there for this? There have been any

99% of the population dies of famine and crime (killed for their food). This is just irrational. What precedent or basis is there for this? There have been any number of disastrous crop seasons from ancient Egypt to the US Atlantic. Why didn't any of them result in 99% of the population dying? Today our knowledge and capabilities around food production are astronomically better. Honestly any kind of major food shortage seems farfetched. As soon as there is any serious trouble, we'll be spinning up whatever we need to, wherever we need to. Our capacity for food production far outstrips our needs, even with our wasteful and luxurious ways. Early settlers in the US were just straight freezing and starving and dying en masse because they did not have the capacity to produce more food, and they managed to keep going and not kill each other. Why didn't law and order meaningfully start breaking down during Covid? There were incidents of bad behavior here and there. But the vast majority of people took a stance no worse than "let's just get through this." The runaway chain reaction of violence is not supported.