3 ms·
Not that I understand all of this. But does that mean a bijection exists from probability values to specific prime positions?
by afpx 1y ago
Not that I understand all of this. But does that mean a bijection exists from probability values to specific prime positions?
- dkural 1y agoNo, not at all. A bijection is a very strong requirement. There is no kind of morphism of any kind here, between any given prime and a probability, just an estimate of prime density.