> If market value is the instrinsic value, how could two separate markets get different prices for the same asset? Much like, returning to our analogy, how the

> If market value is the instrinsic value, how could two separate markets get different prices for the same asset? Much like, returning to our analogy, how the same distance can be different depending on the observer's frame of reference. > methodology states it is based on prices quoted And now read the rest. For "consumer goods and services purchased".