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That’s not true. From the law as written: > legitimate interests pursued by the controller or by a third party… There are six lawful bases for processing, con
by d1sxeyes 1y ago
That’s not true. From the law as written:
> legitimate interests pursued by the controller or by a third party…
There are six lawful bases for processing, consent is only one of them.
- aforwardslash 1y ago"legitimate interests" are subject to interpretation on purpose; either legitimate interests on a given instance are lawful, or you're better off relying on consent, since your interpretation and the regulator's interpretation may be different. Check page 7 of https://www.edpb.europa.eu/system/files/2024-10/edpb_guidelines_202401_legitimateinterest_en.pdf https://www.edpb.europa.eu/system/files/2024-10/edpb_guideli...
- d1sxeyes 1y agoWhat's 'legitimate' and what isn't is up for interpretation, but the question of whose interests is clear in the text of the GDPR itself, and it's the controller's (or a third party's) interests which could form the basis of lawful processing. Interestingly, the GDPR specifically does not include 'benevolent' processing (i.e. processing for legitimate interests of the user) as a lawful basis.