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I believe that in such a case one can use both "has been abolished in 1966" and "was abolished in 1966", but they mean different things. "Has been abolished in
by adrian_b 1y ago
I believe that in such a case one can use both "has been abolished in 1966" and "was abolished in 1966", but they mean different things.
"Has been abolished in 1966" says that it was abolished in 1966 and it remains abolished today.
"Was abolished in 1966" says that it was abolished in 1966, but it provides no information about whether it might have been reinstated later and it might continue to be enforced today.
So in this case I believe that the other poster was correct in using "has been abolished in 1966".
- dragonwriter 1y ago> "Has been abolished in 1966" says that it was abolished in 1966 and it remains abolished today. That meaning would be expressed as "has been abolished since 1966", unless it is still 1966 when the idea is being expressed, in which case "has been abolished in 1966" works instead; "has been abolished" is a present perfect (passive voice) construction so "in <past time period>" doesn't make sense with it, while "since <past time period>" or "in <current time period>" does.
- School-Cotton 1y agoAbsolutely not, you can never say “has been abolished in 1966” in standard American English (and I’m 99% sure the same is true of standard British English). The sibling poster is correct that you can say “has been abolished since 1966”, though.