Sorry if this is a silly question, but I came across a "white lie" in a paper(https://arxiv.org/html/2502.06137v2#S3.SS2 https://arxiv.org/html/2502.06137v2#S3.

Sorry if this is a silly question, but I came across a "white lie" in a paper(https://arxiv.org/html/2502.06137v2#S3.SS2 https://arxiv.org/html/2502.06137v2#S3.SS2) yesterday: > Throughout this section, we use A≈B to mean that A and B are essentially equal, in the sense that B is a suitable approximation of A in some sense that we will formalize in a later section. The reader may feel free to assume A=B when verifying estimates, even though A=B is generally false. Is that when this would be needed?