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That would only be if the income is VAT-taxable, or at least in the UK anyway. I am also not a lawyer but they appear to be defining the fairly nebulous "data v
by robertlagrant 1y ago
That would only be if the income is VAT-taxable, or at least in the UK anyway. I am also not a lawyer but they appear to be defining the fairly nebulous "data value" as being VAT-taxable now. There's no rhyme or reason other than "country got power; country want more money",