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The number itself is not independent of ZFC. (Every integer can be expressed in ZFC.) What's independent of ZFC is the process of computing BB(748).
by ChadNauseam 1y ago
The number itself is not independent of ZFC. (Every integer can be expressed in ZFC.) What's independent of ZFC is the process of computing BB(748).
- Straw 1y agoSure, if someone just gives you the number, ZFC can represent it. But ZFC cannot prove that the value is correct, so how do you know you have the right number? Use a stronger proof system? Go a bit bigger and same issue.
- ajkjk 1y agoNot an expert, but I've read about this a bit because it bothered me also and I think this is the answer: Most of these 'uncomputable' problems are uncomputable in the sense of the halting problem: you can write down an algorithm that should compute them, but it might never halt. That's the sense in which BB(x) is uncomputable: you won't know if you're done ever, because you can't distinguish a machine that never halts from one that just hasn't halted yet (since it has an infinite number of states, you can't just wait for a loop). So presumably the independence of a number from ZFC is like that also: you can't prove it's the value of BB(745) because you won't know if you've proved it; the only way to prove it is essentially to run those Turing machines until they stop and you'll never know if you're done. I'm guessing that for the very small Turing machines there is not enough structure possible to encode whatever infinitely complex states end up being impossible to deduce halting from, so they end up being Collatz-like and then you can go prove things about them using math. As you add states the possible iteration steps go wild and eventually do stuff that is beyond ZFC to analyze. So the finite value 745 isn't really where the infinity/uncomputability comes from-it comes from the infinite tape that can produce arbitrarily complex functions. (I wonder if over a certain number of states it becomes possible to encoding a larger Turing machine in the tape somehow, causing a sort of divergence to infinite complexity?)
- lupire 1y agoIt has to come from a finite value (specifically, the amount of complexity that can be enocoded in 745 pieces of information https://turingmachinesimulator.com/shared/vgimygpuwi https://turingmachinesimulator.com/shared/vgimygpuwi), because the finite size 745 with infinite tape leads to uncomputability, but the size 5 does not. In a very real sense, a deep kind of infinite complexity can be generated from 745 objects of certain kind, but not from 5 objects of that kind.. Turing machines have infinite tape, not infinite state. The entire set of all halting machines of a given size collectively only use finite tape. Totally finite. Only (some of) the non-halting machines use infinite tape. The problem is that we don't know in advance how large the (definitely finite) upper bound on the amount of tape all the size-N halting machines use, until after enough of them (one per known equivalence class) halt. And we don't know (in general) how to run all the halting ones until they halt, without also running a non-halting program for an unbounded amount of time. TL:DR: unbounded is not infinite, but big enough to be a problem.
- ajkjk 1y agoI am aware it's an infinite tape and finite state (maybe I misspoke somewhere), as well as the halting machines using finite tape (because of course they do). But the overall 'complexity' (at a timestep, say) is going to be due to the states and the tape together. The BB(5) example that was analyzed, iirc, was a Collatz-like problem (Aaronson describes it here: https://scottaaronson.blog/?p=8088 https://scottaaronson.blog/?p=8088 ). My interpretation of this is that: 1. collatz-like functions have a lot of complexity just due to math alone 2. 5 states turned out to be enough to "reach" that one that 3. more states means you're going to reach more possible Collatz-like functions (they don't have to be Collatz-like; it's just easier to think about them like that) 4. eventually you reach ones that ZFC cannot show to halt, because there is effectively no way to prove it other than running them, and then you would have to solve the halting problem. The part that was helpful for me to be less unsettle by BB(745) being independent of the ZFC was the notion that it eventually boils down to a halting problem, and asking ZFC to "solve" it... which is more agreeable than the idea that "ZFC cannot compute a function that seems to be solvable by brute force".
- dtech 1y ago
- thechao 1y agoWe need to distinguish between a computer that's equivalent to BB(n), and a computer big enough to compute the value of the number that is BB(n). By (terrible) analogy: a 4004 can be made to write a finite loop that describes how many FLOPs the number 1 supercomputer can compute without, itself, being able to usefully perform the computations of that supercomputer. (The 4004 will run out of memory/addressable disk space.) Similarly, we can no longer build decidable programs in ZFC that can compute the number BB(748). Scott is saying that they now think this "disassociation" might occur at BB(7)!
- vhcr 1y agoNobody can give you that number, because it's way bigger than what can be represented in the universe.
- bo1024 1y agoI think the more correct statement is that there are different models of ZFC in which BB(748) are different numbers. People find that weird because they don't think about non-standard models, as arguably they shouldn't.
- deleted 1y ago[deleted]
- Strilanc 1y agoIsn't that incompatible with the models being consistent? Suppose model A proves BB(748) = X and model B proves BB(748) = Y > X. But presumably the models can interpret running all size 748 Turing machines for Y steps. Either one of the machines halts at step Y (forming a proof within A that BB(748) >= Y contradicting the assumed proof within A that BB(748) = X < Y) or none of the machines halts at step Y (forming a proof within B that BB(748) != Y contradicting the assumed proof within B that BB(748) = Y). I'm guessing the only way this could ever work would be some kind of nastiness like X and Y aren't nailed down integers, so you can't tell if you've reached them or not, and somehow also there's a proof they aren't equal.
- Kranar 1y agoThe issue is that X and Y are not actual natural numbers. They are mathematical objects that satisfy all the ZFC axioms and Peano arithmetic but are infinitely large. The issue is that ZFC underspecifies natural numbers.
- wat10000 1y agoHow is that possible? That implies there’s at least one specific program whose execution changes based on the ZFC model. The rules of program execution are so simple, it doesn’t make sense that they’d change based on anything like that.
- bo1024 1y agoBecause what it means to "halt in finite time" has different meanings in different models, because time is measured with different numbers.
- nyrikki 1y agoTo try and help people digging into this, the following helped me. Two lenses for trying to understand this are potentially Chastain's limits on output of a lisp program being more complex than the program itself [1] or Markov's proof that you can't classify manifolds in d>= 4. If you try the latter and need/want to figure out how the Russian school is so different this is helpful [2] IMHO the former gives an intuition why, and the latter explains why IMHO. In ZFC, C actually ends up implying PEM, which is why using constructionism as a form of reverse math helped it click for me . This is because in the presence of excluded middle, every sequentially complete metric space is a complete space, and we tend to care about useful things, but for me just how huge the search space grows was hidden due to the typical (and useful) a priori assumption of PEM. If you have a (in my view) dislike for the constrictive approach or don't want/have to invest in learning an obscure school of it, This recent paper[3] on the limits for finding a quantum theory of everything is another lens. Yet another path is through Type 2 TMs and the Borel hierarchy, where while you can have a uncomputable number on the input tape you algorithms themselves cannot use them, while you can produce uncomputable numbers by randomly selecting and/or changing an infinite sequence. Really it is the difference between expressability and algorithms working within what you can express. Hopefully someone else can provide more accessible resources. I think a partial understanding of the limits of algorithms and computation will become more important in this new era. [1] https://arxiv.org/abs/chao-dyn/9407003 https://arxiv.org/abs/chao-dyn/9407003 [2] https://arxiv.org/abs/1804.05495 https://arxiv.org/abs/1804.05495 [3] https://arxiv.org/abs/2505.11773 https://arxiv.org/abs/2505.11773
- drdeca 1y agoLooking at [3], they seem to argue that the system isn’t complete for the usual Gödel reasons, which, sure, it isn’t, but then they call the claim that the system fails to decide, which is a statement about probability, a “scientific fact”. This seems to me like a mistake? Like, a TOE is not expected to decide all statements expressible in the theory, only to predict particular future states from past states, with as much specificity as such past states actually determine the future states. It should not be expected to answer “given a physical setup where a Turing machine has been built, is there a time at which it halts?” but rather to answer “after N seconds, what state is the machine (as part of the physical system) in?” (for any particular choice of N). Whether a particular statement expressed in the language of the theory is provable in the theory, is not a claim about the finite-time behavior of a physical system, unless your model of physics involves like, oracle machines or something like that. Edit: it later says: “ Chaitin’s theorem states that there exists a constant K_{ℱ_{QG}} , determined by the axioms of ℱ_{QG} , such that no statement S with Kolmogorov complexity K(S) > K_{ℱ_{QG}} can be proven within ℱ_{QG} .” But this, unless I’m badly misinterpreting it, seems very wrong? Most formal systems of interest have infinitely many distinct theorems. Given an infinite set of strings, there is no finite universal upper bound on the Kolmogorov complexity of the strings in that set. Maybe this was just a typo or something? They do then mention something about the Bekenstein bound, which I haven’t considered carefully yet but seems somewhat more promising than the parts of the article that preceded it.