3 ms·

Cultural homogeneity I could see. But why would racial homogeneity have anything to do with it?

• owlstuffing 1y ago
  Because history treats them as a package deal. Tokugawa Japan saw foreign faces as existential threats. The Ottomans built trust only within ethnic/religious silos (millets). Rome demanded a trinity of assimilation: Latin language, Roman customs, and worship of state gods (later emperor cults). Today's civic nationalism experiment rejects this link, yet no society has sustained high-trust diversity without such enforced unity. Rome threw everything at assimilation: shared language, values, identity above tribe, and state religion. It still fragmented. So Western nations face an unprecedented gamble: Can they maintain cohesion without these historical levers? History offers no successful precedents, only warnings.
  • wat10000 1y ago
    If Rome, which lasted two thousand years, doesn’t meet your bar, then your bar is too high.
    • owlstuffing 1y ago
      The Roman Empire lasted about two to three centuries in its unified form before it began to seriously fragment.
      • wat10000 1y ago
        You still had massive areas under unified control after that. Two to three centuries is nothing to sneeze at, either. What are you comparing to?