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> Legally, however, you are right. Is this true? My understanding is that the 1A has been understood by SCOTUS as a restriction on government power to influenc
by dlivingston 1y ago
> Legally, however, you are right.
Is this true? My understanding is that the 1A has been understood by SCOTUS as a restriction on government power to influence speech, _not_ as a right granted to individuals.