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I think that one does because if you need zero hours of human labour then output/(human labour hours) goes to division by zero.
by tim333 1y ago
I think that one does because if you need zero hours of human labour then output/(human labour hours) goes to division by zero.
- ben_w 1y agoAh, I see now what you mean; yes, that's a potential mathematical singularity. Though I suspect the actual number of human hours worked doesn't really go to zero for cultural/psychological reasons, your point remains valid as we will only find out if/when it happens.