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Yes good point. We'd have to actually flesh out the assumptions about marginal utility of wealth for low-income vs. the high-income group (as well as assumption
by jwarden 1y ago
Yes good point. We'd have to actually flesh out the assumptions about marginal utility of wealth for low-income vs. the high-income group (as well as assumptions about individual utility functions), to demonstrate that this outcome was not optimal. I didn't do that in this article because it gets too mathy.
However, the optimality of QF does assume wealth equality. When you drop that assumption and assume diminishing marginal utility of wealth, you can show that QF is not optimal.
But I think you are right that the example in this article doesn't necessarily show that clearly. The example leans heavily on intuition (or emotional appeal). I think I will try to improve that section.