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> However, in this article, I show that female-mediated sperm selection can also facilitate assortative fusion between genetically compatible gametes. Based on
by nomel 1y ago
> However, in this article, I show that female-mediated sperm selection can also facilitate assortative fusion between genetically compatible gametes. Based on this evidence, I argue that reproductive failure does not necessarily exclusively represent a pathological condition, but can also result from sexual selection (‘mate choice’) at the level of the gametes.
I'm haphazardly suggesting that the above is the same as:
> "There are some (small) genetic populations whose genetics diverged so much, from geographic separation, that they have fertility problems [1].
We have genetic populations that are the result of geographic separation, and we even have genetic divergence that makes reproduction difficult/impossible.
Again, what's left? Why can't we categorize human genetic populations to the same level? Please be specific in what's missing?
> It says nothing about species or subspecies
Why would it? If the categorization of humans included subspecies, I couldn't have responded.
- foldr 1y agoThose two things really aren't the same at all, so I don't see where you're going with this. If it's an established biological fact that there are different subspecies of humans, then it should be possible to find a reference for that.
- deleted 1y ago[deleted]
- deleted 1y ago[deleted]
- nomel 1y ago> Those two things really aren't the same at all Precise equality isn't required for a conceptual discussion, especially one that's so ill defined/subjective as the concept of subspecies [1]. It's an established political fact that classifying humans, at any level, could never be presented. That's not a bad thing, but it's also a mostly arbitrary thing. [1] https://bioone.org/journals/the-auk/volume-132/issue-2/AUK-1 https://bioone.org/journals/the-auk/volume-132/issue-2/AUK-1...