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> FFT is equivalent to convolution What do you mean by that? Could you give me an example?
by bobmcnamara 1y ago
> FFT is equivalent to convolution
What do you mean by that? Could you give me an example?
- kragen 1y agoThe FFT, composed with pointwise multiplication, composed with the inverse FFT, is equivalent to convolution. The FFT is not.
- timewizard 1y agoThe basic convolution theorem. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Convolution_theorem https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Convolution_theorem
- bobmcnamara 1y agoThat is something else entirely.
- timewizard 1y agoThen if you know what the OP meant why did you ask?
- Grimblewald 1y agobecause they made a nonsensical claim that doesn't align with my (and likely their) understanding of what the FT is and does. The FT is _NOT_ just a convolution, but under certain conditions a specific operation on FT terms is equivalent to a convolution.
- bobmcnamara 1y agoI didn't know what they meant. There are so many FFT tricks. I was hoping this was another.