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If he did it's not shown in his writing, or really any pre-20th century writers really.
by KaoruAoiShiho 1y ago
If he did it's not shown in his writing, or really any pre-20th century writers really.
- daseiner1 1y agothis is bait
- zabzonk 1y agohave you read any pre-20th C writers? Or any novels or plays at all?
- KaoruAoiShiho 1y agoThe conflicts in his plays just aren't that profound, you know? Compared to modern "psychological turmoil" it's relatively simplistic, something like Macbeth's "ambition vs morality". Modern writers pull in more layers of depth, explain the ebbs and flows of motivations and identities through social forces and work more with complex ideas like self-deception and rationalization. Shakespeare's characters are generally reliable narrators in a way that later lit tends not to be.