> This is only true while wealth inequality is decreasing, which it is not. If everyone is becoming better off, but at different rates such that there is incre

> This is only true while wealth inequality is decreasing, which it is not. If everyone is becoming better off, but at different rates such that there is increase in inequality, then everyone experiences economic growth. Thought experiment. We have two people, one with 1000 wealth one with 100. We have 10% growth per year. So we see; 1000 -> 1100 -> 1210 -> 1331 100 -> 110 -> 121 -> 133.1 Difference in wealth; 900 -> 990 -> 1089 -> 1198 The ratio of wealth remains 10:1, but the absolute difference becomes larger and larger. I do not know, and I would like to know, how numbers for wealth inequality are being computed.