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This seems to assume that a 1:1 mapping between words exists, but I don't think that's true for languages in general. Compound words, for example, won't map cle
by munchler 1y ago
This seems to assume that a 1:1 mapping between words exists, but I don't think that's true for languages in general. Compound words, for example, won't map cleanly that way. Not to mention deeper semantic differences between languages due to differences in culture.
- raverbashing 1y agoCorrect Mapping words 1:1 is not going to lead you anywhere (especially for a text that has stood undecoded for so long time) It kiiiinda works for very close languages (think Dutch<>German or French<>Spanish) and even then.