4 ms·
I'm not competent at all on the subject but it doesn't seem to me the quote you present imply the comment you previously made The UK Judge in his first extra
by doe88 14y ago
I'm not competent at all on the subject but it doesn't seem to me the quote you present imply the comment you previously made
The UK Judge in his first extradition trial said he would be guilty of rape or sexual assault in the UK.
It seems to me that what he is saying here is that the allegation could be a sexual offense, thus it's one of his arguments to allow extradition to swede in order to permit further investigation on this plausible and relevant allegation.
- gadders 14y agoIf he did the same act(s) in the UK that he did in the Sweden, he would be guilty of a UK offence. It seems pretty clear to me. "His conduct in having sexual intercourse without a condom in circumstances where she had made clear she would only have sexual intercourse if he used a condom would therefore amount to an offence under the Sexual Offences Act 2003, whatever the position may have been prior to that Act"
- vidarh 14y agoIf he did the same acts in the UK that the prosecutor alleges that he did in Sweden. In no way is that conduct proven. In fact, it is not even demonstrated that the women in question have alleged he acted that way - at least one of them have stated she is refusing to sign the statements.