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Might it be because the federal government simply did not need to exercise much authority over the states? As a non-expert I am curious. I am continually amaz
by Gabriel54 1y ago
Might it be because the federal government simply did not need to exercise much authority over the states? As a non-expert I am curious. I am continually amazed by how much authority is delegated to the states and local jurisdictions in the United States (e.g. matters of marriage, property, voting, etc.). As I understand even citizenship was handled by local courts up until very recently.
- dragonwriter 1y ago> Might it be because the federal government simply did not need to exercise much authority over the states? Yeah, it is absolutely because the federal government was simply not trying to commandeer state authorities to enforce federal law; the interesting part (to me) is that the courts were anticipating the problem well before it materialized.