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No he did not. In the dialogue you're thinking of Socrates talks to Phaedrus, and neither of them "decried the use of writing". Writing had existed for 3 mille
by namaria 1y ago
No he did not. In the dialogue you're thinking of Socrates talks to Phaedrus, and neither of them "decried the use of writing".
Writing had existed for 3 millennia by the time Socrates was alive.
In fact Socrates says in that dialogue:
"Any one may see that there is no disgrace in the mere fact of writing."