> if combat soldiers are, as a rule, psychologically unharmed by killing an enemy, does this increase the risk that they may be willing to kill captives or civ

> if combat soldiers are, as a rule, psychologically unharmed by killing an enemy, does this increase the risk that they may be willing to kill captives or civilians who they have come to class as 'the enemy'? It's obviously the opposite: the more traumatized one is, the more likely he is to commit a war crime.