In the first two maps, there seems to be little difference between income per capita and income inequality: the regions with greater per capita income also show

In the first two maps, there seems to be little difference between income per capita and income inequality: the regions with greater per capita income also show greater inequality. Is this because some people always end up at zero no matter the region, so that increasing per capita income from X (lower) to Y (higher) stretches the ranges of income from zero to Y and thus increases disparity?