3 ms·
It's a literary conceit: https://en.m.wiktionary.org/wiki/there_is_no_there_there https://en.m.wiktionary.org/wiki/there_is_no_there_there
by dcminter 2y ago
It's a literary conceit:
https://en.m.wiktionary.org/wiki/there_is_no_there_there https://en.m.wiktionary.org/wiki/there_is_no_there_there
- mrb 2y agoI see, but the "to it" is what's grammatically incorrect. It is correct to write: there is a "there" there. It would also be correct to write: there is a "there" to it. But it is grammatically incorrect to write: there is a "there" there to it.
- dcminter 2y agoEh, maybe? But English grammar is consensus based. This is arguably bad grammar because people not knowing the cliché of "there there" had trouble understanding the intent, not because it's "wrong" under some hard citeable rules. Moreover I think you could argue the author is using the phrase as an abstract noun. Consider: That there's a solidity to it. That there's a "there" there to it. The first turns naturally to my ear; the second is a bit forced but works IMO.
- mrb 2y agoI see, thanks.