3 ms·

Now that she was convicted, it's not "allegedly" anymore is it. Why then this formulation?

• like_any_other 2y ago
  From the point of view of the journalist writing that article, it's still alleged - only that now a court agrees with the allegations. But the court could be mistaken - it has happened before. It is only in a strictly legal sense that it is not alleged anymore, but proven (and there is still the appeal).
  • soco 2y ago
    But after this appeal and when any upper courts finish their procedures and all possibilities of appeal, can one finally drop the "alleged"? (I also wonder why the downvoting but yeah that's HN)
    • like_any_other 2y ago
      That's up to the journalist, but I think keeping and dropping it are both reasonable choices. Suppose this had happened in a corrupt legal system (where both the journalist and reader agree it is corrupt) - in that case we would expect the 'alleged' to remain. And even non-corrupt legal systems can make mistakes - I've heard people with experience in the matter express low faith in the abilities of US juries, for example.