> So he just sold himself a company he already owns for a valuation that he himself assigned to that company but that was less than what he paid for it, and he

> So he just sold himself a company he already owns for a valuation that he himself assigned to that company but that was less than what he paid for it, and he paid entirely using “money” that has a made up value and which he issues himself? And that is for sure either illegal or immoral. /s