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Asking someone who knows history better than I do: Is it the case that every time a society has developed extreme wealth concentration, that concentration gets
by CoastalCoder 2y ago
Asking someone who knows history better than I do:
Is it the case that every time a society has developed extreme wealth concentration, that concentration gets diffused only via violence? E.g., by internal revolution or by takeover by another country?
- Centigonal 2y agothe US Gilded Age into the Great Depression, Labor Movement, and New Deal appears to be a counterexample.
- eszed 2y agoI agree. You can, however, make a case that that time period was revolutionary - i.e. that power relationships were transformed - though without (much, at least widespread) violence. That's certainly the argument made by those within American society who want to undo the legislation and institutions by which those changes came about.