3 ms·
I think the argument is that since the US has legal and well-established corruption there's no difference. Meaning, a billionaire is easily more influential in
by consteval 2y ago
I think the argument is that since the US has legal and well-established corruption there's no difference. Meaning, a billionaire is easily more influential in legislation than a legislator or even multiple legislators, so he is now inseparable from government and is an agent of the government.
- westurner 2y agoAt least they've disclosed their intent to impose editorial bias on the opinion section. It doesn't say "Fair and Balanced." From "Fed to ban policymakers from owning individual stocks" (2021) https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=28951646 https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=28951646 : > "Blind Trust" > "Use by US government officials to avoid conflicts of interest" https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Blind_trust https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Blind_trust : >> The US federal government recognizes the "qualified blind trust" (QBT), as defined by the Ethics in Government Act and related regulations.[1] In order for a blind trust to be a QBT, the trustee must not be affiliated with, associated with, related to, or subject to the control or influence of the government official. >> Because the assets initially placed in the QBT are known to the government official (who is both creator and beneficiary of the trust), these assets continue to pose a potential conflict of interest until they have been sold (or reduced to a value less than $1,000). New assets purchased by the trustee will not be disclosed to the government official, so they will not pose a conflict. > https://www.oge.gov/ https://www.oge.gov/ The Ethics in Government Act which created OGE was passed by Congress in 1978 in response to Watergate: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ethics_in_Government_Act https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ethics_in_Government_Act