> even if your product is purely software, you can be considered to have operations in that country Couldn't users in pretty much every internet-connected coun

> even if your product is purely software, you can be considered to have operations in that country Couldn't users in pretty much every internet-connected country use VPNs and other methods of cross-borders indirection to access even those US services which explicitly block non-US IP ranges? If this is the case, then is it not the case under the quoted reasoning above that any internet company should be expected to have operations in every other internet-connected country?