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He got 49.8% of the popular vote.

• deleted 2y ago
  [deleted]
• tombert 2y ago
  The first time, didn't he get more than that the second time though?
  • daveguy 2y ago
    No. Trump got a 49.8% plurality of the vote was the second time around. The first time around he only got 46.1% to Hillary Clinton's 48.2% (not even a plurality -- yay electoral college). He did not win a majority in either of his wins, and a plurality only the second time. Amazing what you can do with a $44 billion propaganda platform and another quarter billion in usable funds.
  • tzs 2y ago
    2016: 46.1% 2020: 46.8% 2024: 49.8%44
  • AnthonyMouse 2y ago
    He got more than his opponent the second time. Trump got 49.8%, Harris got 48.3%. This is widely considered to be winning the popular vote; nobody else got more votes than he did. As opposed to 2016 where Trump won the electoral college but received fewer total votes than his major opponent because extra votes in California don't count in the electoral college. Notice that if you want to claim that winning the popular vote requires more than 50% then you can't claim that Clinton "won the popular vote" in 2016 because she got 48.2% to Trump's 46.1%.
• cooper_ganglia 2y ago
  Yes, when you get 49.8% of the vote and your opponent gets 48.3%, you have won the popular vote, since 49.8% is more than 48.3%.
  • tzs 2y ago
    One opponent got 48.3%. His opponents got 50.2%, which is what matters since you were claiming winning the popular vote means he had majority support.