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For that argument I believe the question becomes "is the output of a model considered a derivative work of the training data?" https://www.copyright.gov/circs/
by noboostforyou 2y ago
For that argument I believe the question becomes "is the output of a model considered a derivative work of the training data?"
https://www.copyright.gov/circs/circ14.pdf https://www.copyright.gov/circs/circ14.pdf
- ninalanyon 2y agoWhat else could it be?
- monocasa 2y agoThe industry is banking on Author's Guild v. Google to be precedent in such a way that it's functionally transformative enough to be a completely new work. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Authors_Guild,_Inc._v._Google,_Inc https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Authors_Guild,_Inc._v._Google,.... I think they have about a coin flip of a chance that it passes muster in the courts.
- Ajedi32 2y agoAn original composition based on a statistical analysis of the training data. Statistical data about a copyrighted work obviously isn't necessarily a derivative of that work. Otherwise Tolkien could sue me for telling you how many times The Lord of the Rings uses the word "the".
- rasz 2y agoCan it reproduce training data? Then its not analysis but compression, lossy compression.
- Ajedi32 2y agoFor most LLMs, with most works, no. If you trained an LLM repeatedly on nothing but the text of LOTR until it could re-produce the books verbatim and then tried to sell copies of that LLM, then I agree that would be blatent copyright infringement, yes.