3 ms·
So they had a copy, then used it to produce a product that made money, but didn't pay royalties for the use of the copy. I guess AIs best defense is that, yeah
by gosub100 2y ago
So they had a copy, then used it to produce a product that made money, but didn't pay royalties for the use of the copy.
I guess AIs best defense is that, yeah they obtained copies without paying, but it wasn't a "performance" or otherwise distribution of copyright material. The infringement was done internally.
(God this irony is not lost on me: "hey gpt, what's the best argument to make for the $X-circuit court to persuade Judge $Y that we are not infringing on claim $Z under statute $W?")
- flir 2y ago> So they had a copy [...] but didn't pay royalties for the use of the copy. Possession rather than use, I think, but that seems likely, yes. But I don't believe the model itself is infringing.