4 ms·
British law is all about intent, if I intend to deprive the store of that can of coke then it is indeed theft. However, if I drink a little bit before paying it
by Monotoko 14y ago
British law is all about intent, if I intend to deprive the store of that can of coke then it is indeed theft. However, if I drink a little bit before paying it doesn't. The store have to prove I intended to deprive them of it (which I wouldn't do)
- linker3000 14y agoAs I posted elsewhere: "Well, to be pedantic: S.2(2) Theft Act 1968 states that a person may be dishonest notwithstanding a willingness to pay. You could also fall foul of "Doing an act inconsistent with the rights of the owner" " So the store doesn't absolutely have to prove intent.