4 ms·
If these symptoms were not attributable to covid, we would expect that the symptoms would be present at the same rate in patients who have never had covid, no?
by roguecoder 2y ago
If these symptoms were not attributable to covid, we would expect that the symptoms would be present at the same rate in patients who have never had covid, no?
I'm also not sure what the explanation would be for why the symptoms improve over time, if those were the causes.
- whimsicalism 2y agothere are studies indicating more symptom correlation with perception of having had covid than actually having had it