4 ms·
No, that is only the case if you assume the experimenter is free to choose the experiment. Bell shows that in that case either locality or realism is violated.
by moi2388 2y ago
No, that is only the case if you assume the experimenter is free to choose the experiment. Bell shows that in that case either locality or realism is violated.
However, there is a simpler explanation, namely superdeterminism. You are in fact not free to choose the experiment, this choice also has physical causes.