How am I assuming that? If those non-wealthy people haven't objectively studied both candidates, how does that make it less likely that the wealthy are able to

How am I assuming that? If those non-wealthy people haven't objectively studied both candidates, how does that make it less likely that the wealthy are able to exert outsized influence on government policy (either by directly taking part or lobbying)? Trying to distract people by redirecting their unhappiness towards convenient targets that are unrelated to wealth is pretty much exactly what I'd expect from someone wanting to enact a pro-wealthy agenda that doesn't actually help the average voter at all.