3 ms·
Considering it was a similar subset which in the US was largely responsible for the US revolution, I can't say that interpretation is persuasive.
by generalizations 2y ago
Considering it was a similar subset which in the US was largely responsible for the US revolution, I can't say that interpretation is persuasive.
- int_19h 2y agoThe US revolution did not upset the foundational structures such as property rights, though. People who owned the most in US before it were still, by and large, the top dogs after. If anything, they improved their position - where previously they had to share with the metropoly, now they were fully in charge.