4 ms·
None of the answers give a really satisfactory answer for the underlying reason. I have a theory, although I don't have any evidence. Zero is arelatively recen
by thayne 2y ago
None of the answers give a really satisfactory answer for the underlying reason.
I have a theory, although I don't have any evidence. Zero is arelatively recent concept, and probably became part of the language after the rules for pluralization were well established. So when zero came into use it was used similar to negating a plural, like "no widgets" or "not any widgets", so the plural was used. Or maybe it felt unnatural to use singular with a number other than one.
- egypturnash 2y agoWikipedia tells me that the first known usage of "zero" in English was 1598, certainly well after the rules for plurals were set. Wikipedia also tells me that people started speaking what we now call Old English around 450, and also tells me that there were examples of something close to the idea of "zero" going back as far as 1770BC, although the usual history of "zero" in English just goes back to borrowing it from Sanskrit, where it might have first appeared as early as ~300±80 but definitely appeared in 458.
- thayne 2y ago> there were examples of something close to the idea of "zero" going back as far as 1770BC Ah, yes, I was thinking of in Europe, and as a number, but I failed to specify that.
- egypturnash 2y agoI suspected as much, but felt like being pedantic. :)
- deleted 2y ago[deleted]