> If the OP was paid, his code belongs to google. That's wrong. Whether or not the OP was paid, his code belongs to him, unless one of these two things are tru

> If the OP was paid, his code belongs to google. That's wrong. Whether or not the OP was paid, his code belongs to him, unless one of these two things are true: first, if there was a contract that transferred copyright; second, if the OP was supervised in an employee-like role (work-for-hire). That's how it is in the U.S. at least, and I believe France is a part of the Berne Convention, so it should be the same or similar there.