3 ms·

what would we normalize it to? not saying you are wrong in any way, just curiously wondering?

• wyager 2y ago
  There's no a priori reason you would expect student expenditures to become less effective per dollar in richer countries, except the fraction spent on labor.
  • eapressoandcats 2y ago
    Education is almost entirely labor and real estate. It’s a classic Baumol’s cost disease situation. Like I guess richer countries can purchase better computer labs? So yeah, it’s probably true that the US spends more per pupil because we have a higher GDP per capita, but it’s not clear that we should expect to get a lot more out of it.