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The claim is "there are no pure cultures". Is this claim falsifiable? Yes. One could disprove it by demonstrating a culture that never had any mixing. This cl
by alganet 2y ago
The claim is "there are no pure cultures".
Is this claim falsifiable? Yes. One could disprove it by demonstrating a culture that never had any mixing.
This claim is very different from the claim "nothing new about that", which is a classic straw man.
The author offers some evidence for all this mixing. One can argue about the quantitatively nature of it, but not the qualitative. Human cultures qualify for what can be described as intermixed. Again, all we need to do to disprove this claim is present one pure culture.
So, yeah, there's a lot that changed from newspapers to phones, but there is also an undeniable trend that connects them. That's why it's not a falacy per se, but similar claims could be falacious. Trying to come up with a falsifiable scenario for the _specific claim_ is what settles the matter.
- Jensson 2y ago> all we need to do to disprove this claim is present one pure culture. Define "pure culture". This seems to be mostly different interpretations about what that means. If someone says that no water is pure so this polluted water is fine, that is a fallacy.
- alganet 2y agoI can't define what "pure culture" is. I've never seen one. The people claiming that pure cultures exist that must try to define it. The onus is on them, not me.